Examination Sample, نماذج اسئله
Sample Questions
1. Anesthetic testing is most effective in localizing to which of the following?
a. Specific tooth
b. Mandible or maxilla
c. Across the midline of the face
d. Posterior tooth
2. Intraligamental anesthetic testing is most effective in localizing to which of the following:
a. Specific tooth
b. Mandible or maxilla
c. Across the midline of the face
d. Posterior tooth
3. The best approach for diagnosis of odontogenic pain is which of the following?
a. Radiographic examination
b. Percussion
c. Visual examination
d. A step-by-step, sequenced examination and testing approach
4. A sinus tract that drains out on the face (through skin) is most likely from which of the following?
a. Nonodontogenic pathosis
b. A periodontal abscess
c. Periradicular (i.e. endodontic) pathosis
d. Pericoronitis of a mandibular, third molar
5. Which of the following statements regarding a test cavity is accurate?
a. It is the first test in diagnostic sequence
b. It is often results in a dull-pain response
c. It is used when all other test findings are equivocal
d. It should be performed with local anesthetic
6. Radiographically, which of the following statements regarding acute apical abscess is most accurate?
a. It is generally of larger size than other lesions
b. It has more diffuse margins than other lesions
c. It often contains radiopacities (i.e. calcification)
d. It may not be evident
7. In which of the following may a false-negative response to the pulp tester occur?
a. Primarily in anterior teeth
b. In a patient with a history of trauma
c. Most often in teenagers
d. In the presence of periodontal disease
8. The treatment of pulpal diseases that cause periodontal diseases usually requires:
a. Endodontic treatment only
b. Both endodontic and periodontal treatment
c. Periodontal surgery and curettage
d. Combined periradicular and periodontal surgery
9. Studies on the effect of periodontal disease on the pulp have shown:
a. Pathologic pulp changes
b. Degenerative pulp changes
c. No pulp changes
d. All of the above
10. Which of the following statements concerning a sinus tract of pulpal origin is false?
a. The tract is usually thinner than an intrabony periodontal pocket.
b. Vitality tests may evoke an unaltered, normal response.
c. Pain is not often present.
d. It can be traced to the source of irritation.
11. In a primary endodontic lesion with secondary endodontic involvement:
a. There is a history of extensive periodontal disease
b. The pulp always responds to vitality tests
c. Pain is usually absent
d. Periodontal therapy should precede eneodontic therapy
12. The most common cause of root resection failure is:
a. Progressive periodontal disease
b. Recurrent endodontic pathosis
c. Root fracture
d. Poor oral hygiene
13. As emergency treatment, total pulp space debridement is the ideal treatment for symptomatic necrotic tooth and single-rooted posterior tooth with patent canal.
a. True
b. False
14. Acute periradicular abscess (Phoenix abscess) is a localized collection of pus in the alveolar bone at the root apex following pulp death or it may be an acute exacerbation of a chronic periradicular lesion. Usually it associated with systemic toxicity.
a. True
b. False
15. Usually patient who had suffered from interappointment pain had lower incidence of suffering from post-obturation pain, soon after treatment.
a. True
b. False
16. Initial vitality testing of traumatized teeth is most useful to which of the following:
a. It establishes a baseline for comparison with future testing
b. It determines whether root canal treatment is indicated
c. It determines if the blood supply to the pulp is compromised
d. It predicts the prognosis
17. Which of the following statements regarding replacement resorption is accurate?
a. It results from direct contact between root, dentin, and bone
b. It is managed by surgical exposure and repair with a biocompatible material
c. It results when at least 75% of the root surface is damaged
d. It can be avoided by timely endodontic intervention
18. Which of the following statements regarding cervical root resorption is accurate?
a. It is a common, self-limiting result of luxation injury
b. It causes significant pulpal symptoms with cyst formation
c. It can be arrested by RCT or antibiotics
d. It may extend coronally to present as a pink spot on the crown
19. Which of the following statements regarding internal root resorption is accurate?
a. It is more common in permanent than deciduous teeth
b. It is simple to differentiate from other types of resorption
c. It is characterized histologically by inflammatory tissue with multinucleated giant cells
d. It is ruled out when there is no response to pulp testing
20. Midroot fracture should be splinted for a period of:
a. 7-10 days
b. 3-4 weeks
c. 2-3 months
d. 4-6 weeks
21. Underextending the access cavity preparation may lead to:
a. a missed canal
b. breakage of endodontic instruments
c. discoloration of the crown
d. all of the above
22. Bony lesions that may be associated with vertical root fracture include:
a. a widened periodontal ligament space on one or both sides of the root
b. a halo-like lesion around the root apex extending to midroot
c. an angular periodontal defect extending apically from the crestal bone
d. all of the above
23. To remove soft-setting pastes, they should initially be penetrated by:
a. sonic instruments
b. ultrasonic instruments
c. routine endodontic instruments
d. solvents
24. Overextended gutta-percha should be removed:
a. by pulling it out in one piece
b. surgically
c. with rotary instruments
d. with solvents
25. During retreatment the coronal portion of gutta-percha should be:
a. dissolve with solvents
b. drilled out
c. removed using sonic instruments
d. removed using ultrasonic instruments
26. Chloroform:
a. is the most effective gutta-percha solvents
b. is prohibited for use in dentistry in most countries
c. has no adverse effects on clinicians
d. all of the above
27. The technique of choice for removing poorly condensed gutta-percha is:
a. automated instrumentation
b. hand instrumentation
c. ultrasonic instrumentation
d. rotary instrumentation
28. Safe method to remove crown during retreatment without fear of tooth fracture is by using:
a. Crown-O-Matic
b. WAM key
c. Masserann kit
d. All of the above
29. The followings are factors that might have negative influences on the success/failure (treatment outcomes) of the root canal therapy:
a. Extension of filling (either too long or short)
b. Poor obturation quality
c. Longer observation time
d. Pre-existing periradicular pathosise
e. All of the above
30. The following clinical findings are criteria used for evaluation the success of the root canal therapy:
a. absence of pain and swelling
b. absence of apical lesion
c. healing of the sinus tract
d. a and c
e. all of the above
31. Which is the best treatment of failed root canal therapy?
a. extraction of the tooth and placement of implant
b. retreatment of the root canal with gutta-percha and sealer cement.
c. periapical surgery with retrograde filling
d. prescription of antibiotic and strong analgesic
32. The success/failure rate of root canal therapy among dental interns at the College of Dentistry, King Saud University is:
a. 50.9%
b. 100%
c. 44.7%
d. 20.1%
33. Contra-indication of endodontic surgery includes:
a. inability to eliminate pathology by conventional RCT.
b. inability to clean and fill the entire Root Canal by conventional method .
c. iatrogenic problems e.g : broken instrument , perforation.
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
34. Gingival (envelope) flap is an intrasulcular horizontal incision without vertical release that is not used for apical surgery.
a. true
b. false
35. The advantages of the submarginal (Ochsenbein-Luebke) flap are:
a. it does involve marginal or interdental gingiva nor expose crestal bone
b. it does not involve marginal or interdental gingiva nor expose crestal bone
c. seldom used when patient care about his esthetic.
d. all of the above
36. According to Rud et al. 1972, a minimum of 2 years was considered to be sufficient to evaluate the success or failure of the endodontic surgical treatment.
a. true
b. false
37. The prognosis of endodontic surgery of failed cases treated by root canal therapy at the College of Dentistry of KSU is
a. 78.3%
b. 99.4%
c. 15.95
d. 44.45
38. Considerations when using apex locators include:
a. Check electrical connections
b. Keep the pulp chamber dry
c. Keep the canal wet
d. Not for use with open apex
e. All of the above.
39. All these are true for Nickel titanium except:
a. Superelasticity
b. Flexible
c. Able to conform to canal curvature
d. Resist fracture
e. Wear more than stainless steel files
40. If the taper of the file is larger than the canal then there is only contact in the coronal portion of the canal. The greater the taper, the more aggressive the instrument.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both are wrong
c. First statement is true and the second is wrong
d. First statement is wrong and the second is true
41. The major cause of rotary Instrument separation is:
a. Instrument fatigue
b. Using non torque motors
c. Operator dependant
d. Cutting dry
42. According to Ingle; Nearly 60% of endodontic failure is caused by:
a. Incomplete obliteration of the canal space
b. Inadequate instrumentation
c. Broken files
d. Coronal leakeage.
43. When the patient reports severe pain on biting, the percussion test should:
a. not be performed
b. be performed with only a blunt instrument
c. be performed only on the facial surface
d. be performed first with digital pressure
44. A false-negative response to the pulp tester may occur:
a. primarily in anterior teeth
b. in a patient with a history of trauma
c. most often in teenagers
d. in the presence of periodontal disease
45. Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis by:
a. pulp testing and radiographic appearance
b. pulp testing and nature of symptoms
c. radiographic appearance and nature of symptoms
d. pulp testing, radiographic appearance, and nature of symptoms
46. One basic part of diagnosis is:
a. good administration of local anesthesia
b. clinical and radiographic examination
c. proper placement of rubber dam
d. none of the above
47. To enhance the effect of the bleaching agent, heat should be applied according to the following:
a. the temperature should not exceed 2000F
b. the application time should be half an hour on and half an hour off
c. the application time should be five minutes on and five minutes off
d. the heat should be applied to the tooth (teeth) directly
48. For “walking”, non-vital bleaching:
a. mix the hydrogen peroxide with barium sulfate
b. mix the hydrogen peroxide with sodium perborate
c. mix the superexole with calcium hydroxide
d. mix the H2O2 with zinc phosphate
49. The most common cause of discoloration of non-vital teeth is:
a. fluorosis
b. haemorrhage into the pulp chamber
c. by-production of some illnesses
d. coffee
50. To perform in-office non-vital bleaching, a piece of gauze is soaked in:
a. 55% of superoxol
b. 35% of H2O2
c. 30% of barium sulphate
d. 35% of sodium perforate