Advanced Oral Diagnosis

 Course Description
    This course is offered to 5th year undergraduate students.  
    The course is divided into several sections:
    a. Lecture: This part of the course will cover some aspects of patient management especially those that are medically compromised, infection control in the office and proper use and pitfalls of prescription drugs.
        Pertinent laboratory tests and interpretation of the results are also discussed.
    b. Clinics:
        Clinical sessions will be limited to oral medicine cases.  
        Special emphasis will be laid on medically compromised
        status and the focus of patient management will be on a
        comprehensive approach.
   c. Report presentation: Students will write reports on selected medical and dental conditions and present the findings to their colleagues under the supervision of assigned faculty. This is a training in method of collection of data, review of literature, presentation techniques and conduction of seminars.

 Required textbooks
    1.Burket's Oral Medicine, Diagnosis and Treatment
    By Malcolm A. Lynch, Vernon Brightman and Marlin S.
    Greenberg [JB Lippincott]
    2.Principles and Practice of Oral Medicine
    By Stephen Sonis, Robert Fazio and Leslie Fang
    [W.B. Saunders] Latest Edition
    3.Dental Management of Medically Compromised Patient By James W. Little and Donald A. Palace – Latest Edition
    4.Bell's Orofacial Pains”, Jeffrey P. Okeson, Latest Edition
Lecture Schedule

Week Date Lecture Topic          Lecturer     Clinic or Seminar & Case study
1  31-08-14 Introduction & Distribution of topics Dr. Albageah  
2  07-09-14 Research writing Dr. Albageah Report preparing
3  14-09-14 Treatment of Common Oral Diseases I Dr. Albageah  Report preparing
4  21-09-14 Treatment of Common Oral Diseases II Dr. Albageah Report preparing
5  28-09-14 Orofacial Pain 2 Dr. Al- Hadlaq Report preparing
6  12-10-14 Orofacial Pain 3 Dr. Al- Hadlaq Report preparing
7  19-10-14 Treatment of common handicapped cases Dr. Al- Refai  
9  26-10-14 Report presentation All Staff 
3 Reports
Group A: Clinic
Group B: Seminar (H&P for OFP PT)
10  02-11-14 Report presentation All Staff 
3 Reports
Group A: Seminar (H&P for OFP PT)
Group B: Clinic
11  09-11-14 Report presentation All Staff 
3 Reports
Group A: Clinic
Group B: Case study (OFP case)
12  16-11-14 Report presentation All Staff 
3 Reports
Group A: Case study (OFP case)
Group B: Clinic
13  23-11-14 Exam 2nd assessment All Staff  4 Reports presentation
14  30-11-14 Report presentation All Staff 
3 Reports
Group A: Clinic
Group B: Case study (OFP case)
15  07-12-14 Report presentation All Staff 
3 Reports
Group A: Case study (OFP case)
Group B: Clinic
    Final Examination    


1. 22 years old male patient came to your clinic complaining of asymptotic clicking sound in his right TMJ while eating, the proper management of this patient is:
a. Construct a lower orthotic appliance.
b. Construct an upper orthotic appliance.
c. Refer the patient to Maxillofacial surgeon for condylar reduction.
d. No treatment required.   *
2. The most commonly involved muscle in masticatory myofacial pain is:
a. Medial pterygoid muscle.
b. Masseter muscle.  *
c. Temporalis muscle.
d. Sternocleidomastoid muscle.
3. All of the following characteristics are associated with Trigeminal neuralgia except:
a. Sharp shooting pain.
b. Pain last from 5-15 minutes  *
c. Can be triggered by talking, brushing or shaving.
d. Does not interrupt the patient's sleep.
4. All of the following features are associated with migraine except:
a. Attacks last from 4-72 hours.
b. Photophobia and photophobia.
c. Does not aggravated by physical activities.   *
d. Nausea and/or Vomiting might present.
5. Which one of the following headaches response to Indomethacin:
a. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania.  *
b. Migraine.
c. Tension type headache.
d. Cluster headache.

6. Fine, sparse hair, wrinkled and hyperpigmented periocular skin are common features in patients with:
a. Ectodermal dysplasia  *
b. Xeroderma pigmentosum
c. Darier Disease
d. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
7. Which of the following conditions has a high tendency to cause skin cancer?
a. Incontinentia pigmenti
b. Xeroderma pigmentosum  *
c. Warty dyskeratoma
d. Multiple hamartoma syndrome
8. Demarcated erythematous hard palate is a characteristic feature of:
a. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis
b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Hereditary mucoepithelial dysplasia  *
d. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangictasia
9. Which of the following conditions is inherited X-linked disorder?
a. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
c. Hereditary mucoepithelial dysplasia
d. Incontinentia pigmentia   *
10. Warty dyskeratoma is also known as Isolated Darier disease because it’s:
a. Resemble Darier disease in histopathologic features.  *
b. Excellent in prognosis
c. Usually appear as umbilicated papule.
d. Resemble Darier disease when it is inside the oral cavity.
11. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome have more than 10 subtypes, which one of the following is considered as life threatening condition:
a. Hypermobility type
b. Vascular type   *
c. Arthrochalasia type
d. Dermatosporaxis type
12. Shagreen patches can be seen in patients with:
a. Multiple Hamartoma syndrome
b. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangictasia
c. Tuberous sclerosis  *
d. Peutz- Jeghers syndrome
13. Which one of the following diseases can cause blindness?
a. Lichen planus
b. Bullous pemphigoid
c. Steven Johnson syndrome
d. Mucous membrane pemphegoid  *
14. Desquamative gingivitis can be seen in patients with:
a. Lichen planus  *
b. Lupus erythematosus
c. Psoriasis
d. Systemic sclerosis
15. Most of the patients with pemphigus vulgaris died due to:
a. Internal hemorrhage
b. Infection and electrolyte imbalance  *
c. Renal failure
d. Complications of the medications
16. Which one of the following vesiculobullous conditions heals without scaring?
a. Pemphigus vegetans
b. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
c. Bullous pemphigoid   *
d. Pemphigus vulgaris
17. A slight rubbing of the skin results in exfoliation of the outermost layer forming a blister within minutes called:
a. Raynaud’s phenomenon
b. Darier’s Sign
c. Dawn’s phenomenon
d. Nikolsky’s sign  *
18. Central blisters with concentric rings called “target” can be seen in:
a. Erythema multiforme   *
b. Erythema migrans
c. Lichen planus
d. Lupus Erythematosus
19. Pilocarpine is a medication for the treatment of:
a. Psoriasis
b. Xerostomia   *
c. Lichen planus
d. Systemic sclerosis
20. Raynaud’s phenomenon is one of the first signs in:
a. Lupus erythematosus
b. Erythema multiforme
c. Systemic sclerosis   *
d. Psoriasis

 21. Which of the following blood borne viruses considered as the highest risk of transmission after needle stick?
a. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)    *
b. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
d. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
22. Which one of the following is considered as an advantage of using alcohol preparations?
a. Can be used if hands are visibly soiled.
b. Does not require sinks   *
c. Hand softeners and gloves powder may build-up.
d. It may protect the skin from ultraviolet rays.
23. Masks must be changed when:
a. They are wet.
b. Between patients.
c. Every half an hour.
d. Between patients and when they are wet.   *
24. It is not advisable to ask the patient to close his/her lips around the saliva ejector, because:
a. It might cause mucosal injury.
b. It causes negative pressure that is bad for the respiratory system.
c. Previously suctioned fluids might be retracted into the patient’s mouth.   *
d. It gives unpleasant sounds.
25. The most problematic factor of blood borne diseases is that:
a. They are common in our population.
b. They are transmissible in health care sitting.
c. They can produce chronic illness.
d. They usually carried by persons unaware of their infection.   *
26. The best action will be taken when a mouth mirror falls down on the floor is:
a. Ask the assistance to get it then change his/her gloves and bring a new sterilized one.   *
 b. Take it by your self and change your gloves then ask the assistance to bring a new sterilized one.
c. Leave it on the floor until the end of the treatment session and use another one.
d. Wipe it with alcohol swap then reuse it again after changing the gloves.

27. What type of biopsy is indicated when the lesion is small in size?
a. Excisional biopsy.   *
b. Incisional biopsy.
c. Aspiration biopsy.
d. Punch biopsy.
28. The removal of all layers of epithelium including the Basel cell layer known as:
a. Incisional biopsy.
b. Brush biopsy.   *
c. Punch biopsy.
d. Exfoliative cytology.
29. The Mean Cell Hemoglobin MCH is:
a. The ratio of hemoglobin to hematocrite.
b. The volume of packed erythrocytes per 100ml of blood.
c. The ratio of hemoglobin to red blood cells.   *
d. The concentration of hemoglobin in grams per 100ml.
30. The normal bleeding time is:
a. 15-20 minutes
b. 10-15 minutes
c.  6-10 minutes
d. 4-8 minutes  *
31. Increase bilirubin value may indicate all of the following conditions except:
a. Lymphadenopathy   *
b. Hepatitis
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Biliray obstruction
32. Which of the following tests is used to assess the activity of the disease and its response to therapy:
a. Liver function test.
b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.   *
c. Polymerase chain reaction.
d. International normalized ratio.  

33. The use of both hands to feel an organ or mass is:
    A. Bidigital palpation
    B. Bimanual palpation     *
    C. Deep palpation
    D. Bilateral palpation
34. The most common site of physiologic pigmentation is:
    A. Hard palate
    B. The dorsum part of the tongue
    C. Attached gingiva    *
    D. Free gingiva
35. Fordyce granules are numerous white-yellow spots consider as a normal variation because they are just:
   A. Sebaceous glands    *
   B. Minor salivary glands
   C. Visible adipocytes
   D. Sweat glands
36. A Short vertical folds found on the lateral border of the tongue are called:
   A. Circumvallate papillae
   B. Fungiform papillae
   C. Filiform papillae
   D. Foliate papillae    *
37. Which one of the following ducts opens into the vestibule of the oral cavity across from the maxillary second molar tooth?
   A. Wharton duct
   B. Stensen duct   *
   C. Bartholin duct
   D. Steven duct
38. Which part of the tongue can receive bitter taste?
   A. The tip of the tongue
   B. The posterior part of the tongue  *
   C. The lateral borders of the tongue
   D. The middle part of the tongue
39. Which one of the following cranial nerves is transmitting taste sensation?
  A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
  B. Trigeminal nerve
  C. Facial nerve   *
  D. Hypoglossal nerve  
*  The correct answers

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