Selected MCQ from previous 491DEN examinations
Academic year 1426-1427H [2005-2006]
1. The typical clinical appearance of cervical lesions which are more erosively induced is:
a. Sharp edges
b. Deep v-shaped configurations
c. Smooth and shallow loss of hard dental tissue
d. Dark brown soft dentin
e. All of the above
2. What is observed rather often at margins of compomer restorations placed in combination with one bottle adhesives without previous acid-etching?
a. Gap formation in dentin
b. Marginal staining in enamel
c. Higher failure rate
d. Better marginal adaptation in enamel
e. All of the above
f. All of the above except c
3. The reason(s) for dentin hypersensitivity at cervical lesion is (are):
a. The deep loss of hard dental tissue.
b. Fluid flow in dentinal tubules.
c. Open dentinal tubules.
d. Irritation of A-δ fibers
e. All of the above
f. All of the above except (a)
g. All of the above except (d)
4. Among the advantages for glass-ionomer as a restorative material for cervical lesions is (are):
a. The esthetic appearance compared to composite resins.
b. The more elastic properties.
c. The fluoride release.
d. The caries protective property for patients with high caries incidence.
e. All of the above
f. All of the above except (a) and (b).
g. All of the above except (c) and (d).
5. For the repair or correction of old restorations margins, one should rely on:
a. Macromechanical retention
b. Micromechanical retention
c. Chemical bond
d. All of the above.
e. All of the above except (a).
f. All of the above except (b).
g. All of the above except (c).
6. The most important characteristic of a dental adhesive is (are):
a. A high bond strength
b. A low bond strength
c. It allows the tooth to breath by permitting passage of air.
d. It seals the tooth restoration interface.
e. All of the above except (a).
f. All of the above except (b).
7. When etched dentine is dried:
a. The peritubular dentin is exposed.
b. The collagen layer collapses.
c. The adhesive bond improves.
d. It causes the dentinal tubule lumen to become enlarged.
e. All of the above.
f. All of the above except (d)
8. The smear layer on dentin:
a. Bonds well to the underlying dentin.
b. Should always be preserved when bonding to dentine.
c. Is composed of the mineral left over from enamel removal.
d. All of the above except (b).
e. All of the above except (c).
9. The hydrophobic end of a dentin primer promotes bonding to a:
a. Wet collagen.
b. Resin.
c. Mineral of dentin.
d. Peritubular dentin that has been etched to form a funnel shape.
e. All of the above.
f. All of the above except (a).
g. All of the above except (c).
10. The hybrid layer in dentin bonding is composed mostly of:
a. Collagen (demineralized dentin) and primer.
b. Normal dentin and composite.
c. Composite and bonding polymer.
d. Smear layer and adhesive only.
e. Primer and composite.
f. All of the above.
g. All of the above except (e).
11. How many different opacities should be contained in an optimal kit of “esthetic” composite material?
a. Three different opacities (dentin-enamel-incisal).
b. Two different opacities.
c. One universal opacity.
12. Which of these diagnostic procedures are the most useful to facilitate the large composite Class IV restorations?
a. Pre-operative photography
b. “Composite-up”
c. Intra-oral wax-up
d. a and b
13. What composite layers are foreseen in the large Class IV anatomic build-up, from the lingual aspect and moving toward the facial aspect?
a. Enamel, dentin, enamel
b. Enamel, effect materials, enamel
c. Enamel, dentine, effect materials, enamel
d. Enamel, effect materials, dentin, enamel
14. The extensive Class IV composite restoration appears darker following finishing and polishing because of the dehydration of the remaining tooth tissues.
a. True
b. False
15. If the surfaces of the resin-modified GICs are not protected against moisture attack during setting:
1. Hydration will occur
2. Dehydration will occur
3. Loss of translucency will occur
4. Surface fissuring will occur
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 4 only
e. all of the above
f. none of the above
16. Mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) is a root end filling material that:
a. Is a powder which when mixed with water forms a gel then a hard mass in less than 3 hrs.
b. Gives a good resistance to leakage by bacteria and microorganisms.
c. Could be used for pulp capping and repair of perforations.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
17. What is the main difference between inelastic and elastic impression materials?
a. Ability to reproduce fine details.
b. Set in a reasonable time.
c. Can be removed from undercuts.
d. Can be successfully disinfected.
18. Which of the following statements applies best to the polyvinyl siloxane impression materials (addition silicone)?
a. Condensation silicones show less dimensional change than polysulfides or polyethers.
b. Polyethers are stiffer than silicones and polysulfides.
c. Polyethers show more flow than condensation silicones and polysulfides.
d. Addition silicones show more permanent deformation than polysulfides and polyethers.
19. A comparison of the properties of elastomeric impression materials includes:
a. Degree of stiffness of elastomeric impression material.
b. Dimensional stability of elastomeric impression material.
c. Difficulty to be used for edentulous patients.
d. One-hour pouring time being most critical.
20. The impression material that shows the least dimensional change as a result of disinfection by immersion is:
a. Alginate
b. Agar
c. Polysulfide
21. The outstanding features of the Ni-Ti endodontic files:
a. Capability of recycling for use with more than one patient.
b. Superior response to heat treatment by clinician.
c. Super elasticity and shape memory.
22. When using a polysulfide rubber impression material (permlastic), the greatest accuracy of the cast is produced by:
a. Immediate pouring
b. Adding a catalyst to the impression material.
c. Allowing the material to set in the mouth for a minimum of ten minutes.
d. Allowing the impression material to start the initial set before placing the tray in the mouth.
23. Stainless steel endodontic files have more widespread use primarily because of:
a. Lower cost
b. Higher hardness and strength
c. Superior corrosion resistance
d. All of the above
24. Which of the following statements is true concerning the requirements of root canal filling materials. It should be:
a. Adhesive to the canal walls.
b. Impervious to moisture and opaque.
c. Bacteriostatic and not irritant to periradicular tissues.
d. All of the above.
25. Gutta percha is a root canal sealer material that is partially crystalline and comes in two forms and structures.
a. True b. False
26. The base of a surgical flap should be the widest so as to help in ____________________.
a) Suturing of the wound.
b) Maintaining good blood supply to the flap.
c) The surgical access.
27. ______________________flap is commonly used to expose the lingual aspect of the mandible during surgery on the mandible.
a) Envelope
b) Horizontal
c) Modified Semi-lunar
28. Buccal Fat Pad grafts are used in the closure of defects following ______________________.
a) Third molar surgery
b) Apicectomies
c) Oro-antral fistula
29. In a palatal rotation flap, the following blood vessel is usually included in the flap:
a) Greater palatine artery.
b) Superior palatine artery.
c) Nasopalatine artery.
30. Large or massive defects in the palate are closed using the _________________________flap.
a) Buccal advancement.
b) Tongue
c) Cheek
d) Trapezoidal
31. F.N.A.C. – Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy is _____________________.
a) Safe
b) Rapid
c) Inexpensive
d) a and c
e) All of the above
32. Thyroglossal cyst is a swelling present commonly in the __________________________ of the neck.
a) Lateral aspect.
b) Midline
c) Posterior aspect
33. Surgical treatment the plunging ranula involves _____________________.
a) Enucleation of the ranula.
b) Marsupialization of the ranula.
c) Removal of the affected sublingual salivary gland.
d) Dilation of the subgingival gland salivary duct.
34. Ludwig’s angina is a bilateral swelling of the:
a) Submandibular spaces
b) Sublingual spaces.
c) Submental spaces
d) All of the above
35. Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkins tumor affect the:
a) Hematopoietic system
b) Aero-digestive tract
c) Lymph nodes
d) Skin
36. To carry out a research study, the most important step is:
a) Ethical consideration
b) Review of the literature
c) Consultation with the Statistician
d) Data Analysis
37. The test of the Null Hypothesis is applicable to every research study.
a) True
b) False
38. In the evaluation of a scientific paper, the following are essential EXCEPT:
a) Sample size
b) Random sampling
c) Design of the study
d) Study is original
39. Ethics in research includes the following EXCEPT:
a) Protection of rights to privacy
b) Protection against legal risks
c) Protection against the role of the statistician
d) Protection against physical risks.
40. It is not essential to have informed consent in a research that involves children.
a) True
b) False
Go down to see the answer
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Selected MCQ from previous 491DEN examinations
Academic year 1427-1428H[2006-2007]
1. The dimensional accuracy of impression materials is mostly affected by:
a. viscosity of the materials
b. mixing technique of the materials
c. way of removal of the impression after setting
d. all of the above
2. Which of the following statement is true?
a. The die material wets completely a hydrophobic impression and produce an exact replica.
b. The hydrophilicity of the impressions leads to the production of accurate casts.
3. Tear strength of impression materials is dependant on many factors such as:
a. accuracy of gingival retraction
b. hemorrhage surrounding the preparation area
c. flow properties of the impression materials
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
4. Which is the main difference between inelastic and elastic impression materials?
a. ability to reproduce fine details
b. set in a reasonable time
c. can be removed from undercut areas
d. can be successfully disinfected
5. When using a polysulfide rubber impression material (Permlastic), greatest accuracy of the cast is produced when:
a. pouring the impression within an hour
b. adding more catalyst to the impression material during mixing
c. allowing the impression material to start the initial setting before placing the tray in the mouth.
6. Amalgam restorations containing greater amounts of mercury in the set mass demonstrate:
a. less favorable clinical characteristics
b. greater amount of gamma 2 phase
c. lower strength and high creep
d. all of the above
7. Mercury boils at a relatively low temperature and remains in the liquid state at room temperature. It has a significant vapor pressure that can result in mercury poisoning:
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
8. Blood and urine mercury levels are easily influenced by other factors and cannot often be directly linked to amalgam.
a. True
b. False
9. Mercury has many forms, including organic and inorganic compounds. The most toxic organic compounds are methyl and ethyl mercury and the next most toxic form is mercury vapor.
a. True
b. False
10. Mercury levels in the dental offices can be lowered by:
a. addition of elements such as indium
b. good ventilation and charcoal filter system
c. application of a sealant resin for the first several days after insertion
d. All of the above
e. (a) and (c) only
11. In ethics, the following are correct EXCEPT.
a. Protects the confidentiality of your data.
b. Objects to a patient who refuses to take part in your study.
c. Does not necessarily include informed consent.
d. Protects both the rights and the welfare of human subjects in all research.
12. One of the main advantages of a retrospective study is that the researcher is able to properly design the study.
a. True
b. False
13. Which of the following is not important in the evaluation of a scientific paper?
a. Sample size
b. Methodology
c. Test of significance applied to the results
d. The study is not original
14. Clinical research:
a. May not benefit from the Blind or Double Blind technique.
b. Does not need a control
c. Is mostly an intervention study.
d. Does not offer any advantage to the subject at risk.
15. A comprehensive review of the literature enables you to:
a. Be familiar with current situation in the area of planned study
b. Produce a near flawless methodology
c. Identify areas of controversy or hazy areas
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
16. An extravasation mucocoele that extends beyond the mylohyoid muscle to the cervical region is:
a. called a malignant ranula
b. called a plunging ranula
c. originated most often from the submandibular salivary gland
d. required no surgical intervention
17. Thyroglossal duct cyst:
a. is always located lateral to the hyoid bone
b. has similar clinical presentation of the sublingual epidermoid cyst
c. requires thorough investigations of the thyroid gland prior to any surgical intervention
d. is originated from the main thyroid gland secondary to iodine deficiency
18. Cold abscess refers to:
a. glandular fever
b. infectious mononucleosis
c. lymphadenitis tuberculosis
d. metastatic lymphnodes
19. Cystic hygroma
a. should be always noted at a late age of life
b. it may get bigger in size if the infant starts to cry
c. is considered as a dangerous vascular malformation lesion
d. demonstrate no difficulty whatever in its surgical excision
20. Positron emission tomography
a. is needed for the diagnosis of tumor necrosis
b. is indicated for the diagnosis of warthin tumor
c. is needed for the diagnosis of bronchial cyst and fistula
d. is utilized for demonstration of epidemoid cyst's border
Go down to see the answer
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answers
Academic Year 1426-1427H [2005-2006]
1. C
2. B
3. F
4. E
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. F
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. C
22. A
23. D
24. D
25. B
26. B
27. A
28. C
29. A
30. B
31. E
32. B
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. B
38. D
39. C
40. B
Academic Year 1427-1428H[2006-2007]
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (a)
6. (d)
7. (a)
8. (a)
9. (a)
10. (d)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (d)
14. (c)
15. (e)
16. (b)
17. (c)
18. (c)
19. (b)
20. (a)