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تحميل الدليل التدريبي

أسئلة شائعة

1-           Regarding Chest Radiography, ALL ARE TRUE EXCEPT:

a.      A lateral decubitus radiograph can detect pleural effusions of  20ml.

b.      Expiratory films are mandatory in a patient with a history of foreign  body inhalation.

c.        Conventional tomography has a better spatial resolution than Computed Tomography (CT).

d.      Reasonable high-resolution CT windows for parenchymal imaging would be: center + 500 and width 1500HU.

e.       CT adrenal imaging is recommended in most patients undergoing CT scanning of a solitary pulmonary nodule.

2.         On a normal PA chest radiograph, ALL TRUE  EXCEPT:

a.      The left paraspinal line is wider than the right.

b.      The maximum width of the right paratracheal line is 3mm.

c.        The azygous  vein should not have a diameter greater than .5mm.

d.      The posterior junction line extends above the suprasternal notch an comprises four layers of pleura.

e.       The aortic nipple is formed by the left superior intercostal vein arching  around the aortic arch.

3.         In congenital diaphragmatic hernia (Bochdalek type), which is false?

a.      More to be seen at the left side and the posterior aspect of chest.

b.      Associated with pulmonary hypoplasia.

c.        Presence of stomach bubble  adjacent to the heart is good indication in obstetric U/S.

d.      Presentation usually at age 3 years.

e.       The abdomen is gasless with scaphoid appearance.

4.         In mediastinal bronchogenic cyst, which is false?

a.      The cyst is a mass of non functioning pulmonary tissue with cartilage on its wall.

b.      Intrapulmonary bronchogenic cyst may become infected.

c.        Intrapulmonary type more located at upper lobes.

d.      Air fluid level is known finding.

e.       MRI finding- The cyst appearance may be  high on T1WI.

 5.         In bronchopulmonary sequestration intra-lobular type, which is false:

 a.      The blood supply has to be systemic .

b.      There is direct connection to tracheobronchial tree.

c.        Venous drainge to the pulmonary vein.

d.      It is common at lower lobe (more at Left side).

e.       CT angiogram is helpful in the diagnosis .

6.         The following are/is true about solitary pulmonary nodule except:

a.      Tuberculoma is common at upper lobe.

b.      Adenoma rarely calcified . 

c.        Hamartoma usually >4cm with smooth outline and rarely get calcified.

d.      Bronchogenic cyst is well known cause.

e.       Histoplasmoma is seen at lower lobe.

7.          The following are causes of upper zone fibrosis except:

a.      Radiotherapy.

b.      Idiophatic pulmonary fibrosis.

c.        Sarcoidosis.

d.      Ankylosing spondylitis.

e.       Tuberculosis.

8.          In the chest:

a.      The left main bronchus is narrower than the right main bronchus.

b.      The carinal angle is normally about 60 degrees in adults.

c.        There are usually three segments in the left upper lobe.

d.      The right pulmonary artery lies above the right main bronchus.

e.       The right main bronchus may normally indent the esophagus.

9.         The lordotic AP projection of the chest is useful in evaluating:

a.      An apical lesion.

b.      The middle lobe.

c.        Pleural effusions.

d.      Fluid in the oblique fissure.

e.       The carina. 

10.        Regarding the heart valves:

a.      In the normal individual, the mitral valve is the only bicuspid valve.

b.      On the frontal projection the aortic valve is the only valve that lies to the right of the midline.

c.        In the lateral projection the pulmonary valve is the most anterior of the valves.

d.      In the lateral projection the mitral valve is the most inferior of the valves.

e.       The competence of the atrioventricular valves is reinforced by chordae tendinae.

11.         Matched ventilation and perfusion defects are seen in the following conditions:

a.      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia .

b.      Congenital lobar emphysema.

c.        Cystic adenomatoid malformation.

d.      Pulmonary sequestration.

e.       Obliterative bronchilitis.  

12.        Regarding Chest Radiography:

a.      A lateral decubitus radiograph can detect pleural effusions of 20ml.

b.      Expiratory films are mandatory in a patient with a history of foreign  body inhalation.

c.        Conventional tomography has a better spatial resolution than Computed Tomography (CT).

d.      Reasonable high-resolution CT windows for parenchymal imaging would be: center + 500 and width 1500HU.

e.       CT adrenal imaging is recommended in most patients undergoing CT scanning of a solitary pulmonary nodule.  

13.        The following are causes of an air bronchogram on the CXR:

a.      Nonobstructive collapse.

b.      Passive atelectasis.

c.        Lymphoma.

d.      Progressive massive fibrosis.

e.       Alveolar cell carcinoma. 

14.        Concerning neurogenic tumors of the thorax:

a.      Neuroblastoma does not occur in the anterior mediastinum.

b.      A thoracic neuroblastoma is likely to be of higher stage (i.e., INSS 3 or 4) than an abdominal tumor.

c.        Nerve-sheath tumors are generally spherical.

d.      Calcification in a tumor suggests that it is more likely to be benign than malignant.

e.       Lateral thoracic meningoceles almost always communicate with the subarachnoid space.

15.        Concerning pulmonary tuberculosis:

a.      An isolated pleural effusion is a manifestation of primary tuberculosis.

b.      Cavitation is a common manifestation of primary tuberculosis.

c.        In 95% of cases, the initial  lesion arises in the apicoposterior segment of an upper lobe or the apical segment of a lower lobe. 

d.      Miliary spread is more commonly a result of primary than post-primary tuberculosis.

e.       A pleural effusion in post-primary infection carries a worse prognosis than one occurring in primary tuberculosis.

16.        The radiological signs of pulmonary thormboembolism include:

a.      A normal chest radiograph.

b.      Westermark’s sign – alteration of the pulmonary vasculature distal to an embolus.

c.        Fleischner’s sign–dilation of a main pulmonary vessel by back pressure or clot.

d.      Hampton’s hump – a shallow hump-shaped lesion on the pleural surface due to a pulmonary infarct.

e.       Demonstrable effusions in most cases of pulmonary infarction.

17.         Cystic adenomatoid malformation (CAM):

a.      Can have radiological appearances similar to those of a Bochdelek hernia on the CXR.

b.      Can usually be distinguished from bowel by chest USS.

c.        Can be readily diagnosed antenatally at 37 weeks.

d.      Usually presents with oligohydramnios in late pregnancy.

e.       Appears similar to congenital lobar emphysemal (CLE) on CXR.

18.         The following may appear on the CXR as multiple lung cysts in children:

a.      Pulmonary sequestration.

b.      Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis.

c.        Congenital lobar emphysema.

d.      Pulmonary interstitial emphysema.

e.       A bronchogenic cyst.

19.        Congenital Lobar emphysema (CLE):

a.      Is characterized by small cysts in the affected lung.

b.      May present with complete opacification of the affected lobe.

c.        Affects the lower lobes in more than 25% of cases.

d.      Can resemble a tension pneumothorax.

e.       Requires surgical treatment in most cases.

20.       Concerning Pediatric Diaphragmatic Disorders:

a.      Bochdalek hernias are the most common intrathoracic fetal anomaly.

b.      Morgagni hernias are commonly associated with poly hydromnis.

c.        After repair of a Bockdalek hernia, the mediastinum remains shifted  to the contralateral side.

d.      Diaphgramtic eventration is not associated with pulmonary hypoplasia.

e.       The scaphoid abdomen usually differentiates diaphragmatic hernia from cystic adenomatoid malformation of the lungs 

21.        Reduced prominence of the main pulmonary artery on the PA chest radiograph is caused by the following:

a.      Tetralogy of Fallot.

b.      Tricuspid atresia.

c.        Uncorrected transposition of the great arteries.

d.      Truncus arteriosus.

e.       Pulmonary valvular stenosis.  

Which is True

 Bochlar Angle  

  1. Angle between ulnar and radius
  2. Angle for calcaneous T
  3. Angle between thoracic & Lumbar spine
  4. Angle for recto-sigmoid junction
  5. Angle for gastro-esophageal junction.

The following are causes of pneumoperitoneum. EXCEPT

  1. Post laparotomy or laparoscopy.
  2. Perforated viscus
  3. Post traumatic penetrating injury
  4. Rupture diverticulum
  5. Hepatoma. T

ERCP  (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) means?

  1. Examination of biliary tract. T
  2. Examination done by CT Scan.
  3. Examination done by MRI
  4. Examination done without contrast
  5. Examination done by Ultrasound.

For Periosteal reaction:

  1. Expansion of the bone.
  2. Elevation of periosteum by pus, blood, tumor  or new bone T
  3. Sclerosis of the bone
  4. Thickening of the medulla of the bone
  5. Need CT to diagnose periosteal reaction.

The following are feature of aggressive lesion: EXCEPT

  1. Irregular new bone formation
  2. Poorly defined margin
  3. Periosteal reaction
  4. Soft tissue extension
  5. Expansion of intact cortex. T

All are mechanical obstruction of the esophagus, except:-

  1. Goiter
  2. Diverticulum
  3. Foreign body
  4. Achalasia T
  5. Esophageal Web.

Imaging of G.U. system:

A patient came to you and he is complaining of flank pain, colicky in nature with hematuria and you suspect ureteric stone.  The most sensitive investigation for such case is:-

  1. IVU ( Intravenous Urogram)
  2. Urethrogram
  3. KUB (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder X-ray)
  4. CT Scan T
  5. MRI

IVP is contraindicated in all the following except:-

  1. Previous reaction to IV contrast.
  2. Renal failure
  3. Neonate T
  4. Patient on renal dialysis
  5. Diabetic patient.

The most minimal invasive imaging technique is:-

  1. Plain X-ray film.
  2. Ultrasound T
  3. CT without contrast
  4. Nuclear Imaging
  5. None of the above.

Male patient came complaining of scrotal swelling.  The first line of investigation to be done for him is:-

  1. Scrotal ultrasound T
  2. Scrotal X-ray
  3. CT Scan for the pelvis and scrotum.
  4. Nuclear Imaging
  5. MRI

A productive female come to ER with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding the first radiological imaging for her is:-

  1. Abdominal x-ray
  2. Ultrasound T
  3. Nuclear Medicine
  4. CT scan
  5. MRI.



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